QuestionSBA
QuestionChoice
Whilst the patient's hypertension is classified as Stage 2, Amlodipine, a Calcium-Channel Blocker would be inappropriate first-line therapy as this woman has Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus.
10002495
d
Stage 2 Hypertension and commence the patient on Amlodipine
QuestionChoice
This is incorrect as Stage 3 hypertension is defined as a blood pressure of >180/120 in the clinic and IV Nitroprusside would only be administered where there are signs of papilloedema and/or retinal haemorrhage.
10002494
c
Stage 3 Hypertension and immediate administration of IV Nitroprusside
QuestionChoice
This is incorrect as stage 1 hypertension is defined as clinic BP of 140/90 - 159/99 mmHg. ABPM is used to confirm the clinical diagnosis of both stage 1 & stage 2 hypertension.
10002496
e
Stage 1 Hypertension and confirm via Ambulatory Blood Pressure Measurements (ABPM)
QuestionChoice
This patient's reading is 165/110 mmHg, and the threshold for stage 2 Hypertension in the clinic is ≥ 160/100 mmHg. NICE guidelines recommend the use of ABPM to confirm the diagnosis.
10002492
a
Stage 2 Hypertension and confirm via Ambulatory Blood Pressure Measurements (ABPM)
QuestionChoice
While this patient does have stage 2 hypertension in the clinic measurements, and Ramipril would be the appropriate first-line treatment for this patient, NICE guidelines recommend ABPM to exclude the possibility of white coat hypertension before commencing any pharmacological interventions.
10002493
b
Stage 2 Hypertension and commence the patient on Ramipril
Concept
Chapter
2693
3701
Hypertension
Topic
134
Cardiology
13045
A 47-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine review of her Type 2 diabetes medication. The GP performs her blood pressure which reads 165/110 mmHg.

What is the best interpretation and appropriate course of action for this reading?
a