QuestionSBA
QuestionChoice
Incorrect - A direct inguinal hernia would not remain reduced when pressure is applied to the deep inguinal ring. Direct inguinal hernias occur due to weakness of the conjoint tendon or the transversalis fascia.
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c
Direct Inguinal Hernia
QuestionChoice
Incorrect - The root of an umbilical hernia would begin superior to this location, although with time it could grow and protrude.
10008278
d
Umbilical Hernia
QuestionChoice
Incorrect - Femoral hernias are inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle, rather than superior and medial. Femoral hernias are more commonly found in women.
10008276
b
Femoral Hernia
QuestionChoice
Incorrect - A saphena varix is a dilation of the saphenous vein, typically at its junction to the femoral vein within the groin. Saphena varices can sometimes be mistaken for femoral hernias: the key differentiation is that a saphena varix is reducible, whereas femoral hernias are not.
10008279
e
Saphena Varix
QuestionChoice
Correct - This presentation has all the classic characteristics of an indirect inguinal hernia. Remember, indirect inguinal hernias pass through both the deep and superficial inguinal ring, rather than bursting through the fascia of the abdominal wall. The key feature in identifying this as an indirect inguinal hernia is that it remains reduced whilst pressure is applied to the deep inguinal ring.
10008275
a
Indirect inguinal hernia
Concept
Chapter
2693
4554
Direct and indirect inguinal hernias
Topic
135
General surgery
14202
A 67-year-old male presents to his GP with a swelling in his groin. On examination, the swelling originates superiorly and medially to the pubic tubercle. It is painless, soft, and reducible. The swelling remains reduced whilst pressure is applied to the deep inguinal ring.

Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
a