QuestionSBA
QuestionChoice
This is incorrect because *chlamydia trachomatis* is frequently asymptomatic in women. If symptoms are present, they may include dysuria, intermenstrual bleeding and vaginal discharge. Abdomina pain and systemic upset such as fever are less common. Cervical motion tenderness indicate peritoneal infection, which makes an uncomplicated sexually transmitted infection less likely than pelvic inflammatory disease.
10009616
b
*Chlamydia Trachomatis *
QuestionChoice
Primary *Treponema Pallidum*, or primary syphilis, presents as a painless ulcer at the site of inoculation (mouth or genitals) and regional lymphadenopathy.
10009618
d
Primary *Treponema Pallidum *
QuestionChoice
Secondary *Treponema Pallidum* usually presents with fever and rash (on palms and soles) headaches and diffuse lymphadenopathy
10009619
e
Secondary *Treponema Pallidum *
QuestionChoice
This is the correct answer based on a clinical diagnosis. This condition does need a bi-manual examination for rebound and cervical motion tenderness. Cervical motion tenderness indicate peritoneal infection.
10009615
a
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
QuestionChoice
Gonococcal Urethritis presents as an abrupt onset of severe dysuria and yellowish-green purulent urethral discharge in males and the cervix presenting as red and possible bloody discharge in females
10009617
c
Gonococcal Urethritis/Cervicitis
Concept
Chapter
2693
5362
Sexually Transmitted Infections
Topic
264
Reproductive Medicine
14471
A 28 year old female patient presents with pelvic, and abdominal pain with cervical motion tenderness and a fever.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a